You are correct based on what I remember from my LTC class. What i am still wondering is how property owners rights are allowed to override the 2A Constitutional Right to bear arms. Yes, there are well established property rights and they are backed by case law, but they are not spelled out in the Constitution as are the 2A rights. If you have a God given right to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness and the God given right to bear arms per the 2A, why are property owners allowed to take that right away? It seems that their ‘property rights’ are ‘lesser rights’ than the specific Constitutional right to bear arms.