What does it achive, having a state law or consitutional amendment that mirrors a federal one. If 2A is trampled on the federal level, would a state amendment or law be immune and by what mechanism?
It lets the federal level know they will have a fight and those state won’t just roll over. The Democrats used the courts to block a significant amount of the previous administration’s policy proposals.
They are now going to reap what they sowed because Texas is already suing the new administration.
This is what I still don’t understand. If there is a way to defeat a constitutional amendment on the federal level, without abolishing it altogether, how does a state law, phrased in exactly same words, expect to stop it? Won’t federal laws just supersede the state law? Does state law somehow impede representatives and senators from that state from legislating on the federal level?